Talk:Milton's divorce tracts
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his wife's name was Mary Powell not Marie
- It is actually both Marie and Mary. Mary is the later spelling of Marie, which was the 16th century. See this book for details. Ottava Rima (talk) 04:17, 2 April 2009 (UTC)
- oh ok, cool
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Arguments[edit]
The article states:
"The overarching argument is that private divorce by mutual consent for incompatibility is consonant with Christian Scripture, specifically Matthew 19:3–9, where Christ seems to specifically forbid divorce. Yet although buttressed by Scriptural authority, ...."
Here is Matthew 19:3-9 (NIV):
3 Some Pharisees came to him to test him. They asked, “Is it lawful for a man to divorce his wife for any and every reason?” 4 “Haven’t you read,” he replied, “that at the beginning the Creator ‘made them male and female,’[a] 5 and said, ‘For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife, and the two will become one flesh’[b]? 6 So they are no longer two, but one flesh. Therefore what God has joined together, let no one separate.” 7 “Why then,” they asked, “did Moses command that a man give his wife a certificate of divorce and send her away?” 8 Jesus replied, “Moses permitted you to divorce your wives because your hearts were hard. But it was not this way from the beginning. 9 I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another woman commits adultery.”
In the "except for sexual immorality" passage, the Greek word is "porneia", which in King James Bible is translated (more accurately according to Catholics) as fornication (sex between unmarried).
So this passage from Matthew can either be interpreted as a strict no to divorce, whatsoever (Catholic interpretation for 1600 years at the point of Milton) or an "escape hatch" in the case of adultery on one part (Protestant view for 100 years at the time). It can't be interpreted as in consonant with and buttressed by Scripture to say "private divorce by mutual consent is ok".
Is this really Milton's argument?