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I'm flummoxed by the contribution "However, this question is not handled by the Directive. It is a question of the right to free movement for services itself, which is handled directly by the Treaty itself, since the contractor wished to use its own staff rather than hiring external subcontractors." Surely the decision by the contractor to use its own staff is precisely what the posted workers directive is intended to permit? Is the contributor who wrote this section simply confused, or trying to make a very abbreviated observation that in UK law it would have made no difference, as there are no minimum standards, and collective agreements do not have sectoral effect? Labour Lawyer (talk) 12:36, 28 October 2013 (UTC)[reply]
