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Talk:Afghan–Maratha War

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I am moving this page to Maratha conquest of North-west (1758) as this title seems a better one. It describes time period (1758), also to be noted that Maratha conquest which is descibed in this article is not only in north-west of India but also Pakistani provinces of Punjab and Nwfp. So it can't be said conquest of north-west India, but simply north-west which means north-west part of the sub-continent. JC Ramek (talk) 05:32, 8 August 2012 (UTC)[reply]

Mr. Ramek, it seems you are a bit confused about the title of this article. I suggest its title "Maratha conquest of North-west India (1758)".

About India name in the title, before 1947, Pakistan was considered a part of India, so there is nothing wrong in using word 'India'. 85.113.37.6 (talk) 09:56, 8 August 2012 (UTC)[reply]

Requested move

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The following discussion is an archived discussion of the proposal. Please do not modify it. Subsequent comments should be made in a new section on the talk page. No further edits should be made to this section.

The result of the proposal was already moved.--Fuhghettaboutit (talk) 05:20, 15 August 2012 (UTC)[reply]


Maratha conquest of North-west India (1758)Maratha conquest of North-west India – My apologies for all these edits. I myself moved this page to the present title "Maratha conquest of North-west India (1758)" but now I feel this title is poor as it becomes too long. There was no need to change this title as it was quite appropriate. I tried to revert my own revert, but couldn't succeed. So, I ask for an administrator to change back this title to Maratha conquest of North-west India. JC Ramek (talk) 10:14, 8 August 2012 (UTC)[reply]

Well, you have now been blocked as a sock but your desire to revert back to Maratha conquest of North-west India is correct. Your earlier moves were ridiculous, IMO. - Sitush (talk) 16:18, 8 August 2012 (UTC)[reply]
Article moved back to original title. Elockid (Talk) 20:17, 8 August 2012 (UTC)[reply]
The above discussion is preserved as an archive of the proposal. Please do not modify it. Subsequent comments should be made in a new section on this talk page. No further edits should be made to this section.

Marathas as a Mughal vassal

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Which sources state this? Recent talk page discussions on Maratha Confederacy concluded otherwise. SKAG123 (talk) 16:33, 12 October 2024 (UTC)[reply]

"Recent discussions" concluded not to mention this in the status section of the infobox because of nuance. The lead and the sources provided in the lead of the confederacy article clearly mention that they paid allegiance to the emperors. PadFoot (talk) 16:45, 12 October 2024 (UTC)[reply]
The body paragraph (no sources provided)
” After the death of Mughal emperor Aurangzeb in 1707, the Deccan wars came to an end. The Mughals released Shahu I, the grandson of Shivaji, who won the Maratha throne from his cousin Rajaram I and recognised the suzerainty of the Mughal emperor. Following the death of Emperor Bahadur Shah I, other Mughal vassals and governors became more autonomous and began to rule their territories themselves under the suzerainty of the Mughal emperor. The Marathas warred with other vassals, such as the Rajputs, Bengal and the Nizam and got control over large territories in Gujarat, Central India and Orissa.”
Assuming this is true ( no sources provided) This states the Marathas recognized the Mughal emperor as their suzerain. This does not indicate a vessel status especially during the time of the Afghan Maratha War. Assuming so is original research.
@Flemmish Nietzsche explained this at Talk:Maratha Confederacy#Vessel of the Mughal empire SKAG123 (talk) 17:02, 14 October 2024 (UTC)[reply]