Talk:Tortious interference/Archive 1

Hard core

!! Usage of word 'hardcore' Is it appropriate in the first paragraph? (does it have a legal meaning ? - seems very out of place otherwise). —Preceding unsigned comment added by 121.44.3.187 (talk) 04:25, 6 April 2009 (UTC)

Marriage

HELP!!!

Need to know if "tortious interference with contract" can be used as related to marriage. Ex: Wife leaves husband for rich guy who was aware of marriage. Husband tells rich guy to see his way out of the relationship, but he continues to see the married woman regardless.

In this case, the marriage is the "contract", and the rich guy is knowingly interfering with the contract being fulfilled.

Someone please tell me if this is a legitimate case that could be brought before the court??? And based on experience, if you could actually win in court???

Thanks, Single Dad

Hey Single Dad,

I'm just doing some business homework and research.

It sounds like it could be interference with marriage as the contract. I'm in Business and would relate this to the wrongful interference with a business relationship. The "rich guy" is the defendant or the tortfeasor. The married woman is dating the rich guy and the husband knows about this. The husband talks to the rich guy and tells him to leave his wife alone. The rich guy refuses. Now the husband takes the tortfeasor and his wife to court. The interference to the relationship has no means of justification; therefore there is no defense on the part of the tortfeasor and the woman.

(Based on a true story) What if a couple is engaged and there are several perpetrators? One situation in particular involvs a guy named JR who uses a guy named Will to break up Demetrius and his fiancé. What happens in this situation is that Demetrius is dragged down into the dirt. He cannot pull himself up. This leads to the bottom of the pit and finally his near death experience.

Single mom

Actually, I believe there's a different cause of action in that case, for alienation of affections. bd2412 T 22:36, 18 March 2007 (UTC)

To single dad:

You situation is called "adultery", not tortious interference. The purpose of torts is to compensate the victim for damages, potentially above the value of the underlying contract. However, adultery is a ground of divorce (if your state requires such a thing) and for damages you would be entitled to the property of the marriage in whatever proportion the court determines is equitable.

69.60.135.226 (talk) 20:57, 19 March 2008 (UTC)

The short answer is that it depends on what state you are in.

69.140.152.55 (talk) 15:40, 26 June 2008 (UTC)

See alienation of affections. Grover cleveland (talk) 18:54, 25 June 2010 (UTC)

other acts

This article gives examples of acts of violence that are directed at interfering with contract performance. Does anyone know if there are cases of lesser acts? For instance, what if party A & B have a contract and party C publicly criticizes A's performance of the contract? — Preceding unsigned comment added by Skysong263 (talk • contribs) 06:20, 7 July 2011 (UTC)

Which country or countries does this page apply to?

Viewing this page from the UK it is not obvious which country or countries the content applies to. I presume it is primarily the USA and may well not apply to many other countries. Unfortunately I cannot provide the clarification myself as I am not a legal expert. Could someone who does know please add a simple statement to the page clarifying to which countries the content applies.

Many thanks.

82.8.142.66 (talk) 21:56, 23 March 2012 (UTC)

All three of the cases currently cited are from the UK, although they are ancient. However, tortious interference is a common law cause of action, and the U.S. common law descends from the English common law. I would think, therefore, that some variation of the tort exists in all common law countries. bd2412 T 23:09, 23 March 2012 (UTC)