User talk:73.238.169.75

In $\forall x{\Big (}R(g(x))\vee \exists yR(x,y){\Big )}\iff \exists f\forall x{\Big (}R(g(x))\vee R(x,f(x)){\Big )}$ it is not clear what the $R(g(x))$ disjunct is.

It implies that R has both a unary and binary syntax, which is confusing, and the meaning of g is never explained. It seems to me that the formula would be simpler and still correct if it were written as $\forall x\exists yR(x,y)\iff \exists f\forall xR(x,f(x))$ If this is not correct, could you clarify the page? Thanks.

This is the discussion page for an IP user, identified by the user's IP address. Many IP addresses change periodically, and are often shared by several users. If you are an IP user, you may create an account or log in to avoid future confusion with other IP users. Registering also hides your IP address.