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Who funds "The More You Know" ads on NBC?

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I've been trying to figure out who funds those ads. It's not the Ad Council. Does NBC get a grant from the government for these? Who is paying for them?

I don't know, but it's probably actually an act of good will by NBC. That and it's a tax write-off. Maybe they have to give a certain amount of airtime to charitable public causes, as they do in radio. AdamBiswanger1 03:32, 14 August 2006 (UTC)[reply]
I assure you nothing that takes airtime is an act of good will. --mboverload@ 10:12, 14 August 2006 (UTC)[reply]
I agree... likely not an act of good will but there doesn't seem to be much transparency here. NBC probably gets a sizable tax break or something for these. They show up no where on the charity databases which is odd.

They are funded from the large settlement of the tobacco lawsuit in the US. You can see Truth (advertising) but it doesn't seem to have any information regarding the lawsuit or the settlement... maybe Google... 71.112.125.31 19:08, 14 August 2006 (UTC)[reply]

I did some digging here and haven't been able to connect the tobacco lawsuit to TMYK campaign.
Ahh... see also Tobacco industry and scroll down to the "Industry outlook" section. 71.112.125.31 19:16, 14 August 2006 (UTC)[reply]

take a look at http://www.themoreyouknow.com/overview/: "NBC Universal's THE MORE YOU KNOW public service campaign"

Interesting but doesn't say who is funding... this question is still unanswered
I can't speak for NBC, but as a broadcaster I can say that stations and networks often do public-service messages for free. Ostensibly they are done as a service to the community and to the public in general. The practical benefit is that advertisers like doing business with broadcasters who are "good corporate citizens," hence there is a secondary financial benefit. It also helps with the FCC when licenses come up for renewal. — Michael J 18:13, 26 August 2006 (UTC)[reply]
Yea, the FCC is the reason. Broadcasters have an obligation under the law to "serve the public interest". Some freebie public service ads help with their claim that they are doing so. You may also notice some shows with the label "E/I" in the corner. This means they are "Educational/Information" and thus also help them to keep their license. An example is "Dora the Explorer". If a station builds up enough good will with the FCC then it will look the other way when they put total crap on, like Jerry Springer. StuRat 22:20, 27 August 2006 (UTC)[reply]

sources greek mythology

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I would like to write an article about Biblis(mythological human) but don't know where to find a reliable source.

It's actually spelled Byblis, and the article does exist : ) AdamBiswanger1 03:26, 14 August 2006 (UTC)[reply]

Ahh!! Thanks. It did seem like a rather large hole. I had seen it spelt "Byblis" but I was taking my spelling from William-Adolphe Bouguereau's painting. Is the spelling "Biblis" french and should a search for "Biblis" not yield a link to the page? (I would do this but I have no clue how)Npenns 03:07, 19 August 2006 (UTC)NPEnns[reply]

politics

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give clear reference & information about mptc, zptc, in indian context of local self government

In how many words? When is it due? Will this be on the final exam?Loomis 08:42, 14 August 2006 (UTC)[reply]
is this related to panchayati raj system of indian local governments??nids 23:01, 14 August 2006 (UTC)[reply]

When did Klingons become a big deal

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When did large numbers of people star dressing up as the Klingons on Star Trek? When did the "Warriors of Honor" aspects of the Klingons get started-- was it with the start of TNG in '87? or were there earlier appearances of this quality in TOS, movies, or early novels? --Alecmconroy 05:48, 14 August 2006 (UTC)[reply]

Presumably they were mentioned or parodied or something on a different programme; otherwise, non-Trekkies wouldn't have heard of them and they wouldn't be so popular. Maybe References to Star Trek would be useful... -- THE GREAT GAVINI {T|C|#} 08:18, 14 August 2006 (UTC)[reply]
I would expect it would have been after the start of Star Trek: The Next Generation, yes. In the original series the Klingons were portrayed as untrustworthy and murderous. Only in TNG did they become honorable warriors. Also, they looked a lot better in TNG (at least if you don't mind gluing a chunk of latex onto your forehead). StuRat 08:20, 14 August 2006 (UTC)[reply]
Well, the Klingons got their new look and the first hints of new language in the 1979 "Star Trek: The Motion Picture". The language was created for the 1984 film "Search for Spock". And the first Klingon main character was Worf in the 1987 TNG series. But I can't find any good sources for what was going on in the fan culture during those times. Maybe large numbers of people were dressing up like Klingons just after the orginal series-- I know there was no shortage of Vulcans back then. Or maybe the "Warrior Culture" got invented in the novels / fan fiction / culture sometime prior to 1987. --Alecmconroy 11:05, 14 August 2006 (UTC)[reply]
The end of season 4 through season 5 of Star Trek: The Next Generation had a great deal of plot involving the Klingons (before that they were a minor recurring thing, excepting the character Worf). This was in 1991, I believe. I would say that this would have had a big impact on their popularity. Before this, there were the Star Trek movies, which have already been mentioned. - Rainwarrior 02:18, 15 August 2006 (UTC)[reply]

Discovered Berlioz composition

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About ten years ago a Berlioz composition was discovered in a piano bench compartment in Belgium and was performed for the first time in 127 years in the cathedral in Vezelay, France. What was the name of that piece? —Preceding unsigned comment added by Charroux (talkcontribs)

A bit of googling turned up some information (in French, unfortunately) about a piece called Messe solennelle. I'm not sure if it's the same piece you're talking about; it was written in 1824 and performed in 1993, and the first performance was in Bremen, although it was also performed in Vezelay several days later (another French link). --Cadaeib (talk) 15:23, 14 August 2006 (UTC)[reply]

John Alford, Landscape painter

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I have acquired an oil painting of Saulisbury Cathedral painted by John Alford and dated 1954. Can any one tell me anything about this artist please?

Thank you

David Smith

I'm afraid this gentleman's being quite elusive. This [1] was the best I could come up with on Google, and all it offers is a few auction results that you have to subscribe to get. He's mentioned a few other times as an editor of various books on art, though. I would highly suggest you ring your nearest art dealer or estimator and see if they have any knowledge of him. He seems to be notable, but not terribly well-represented on the 'net. Tony Fox (arf!) 15:45, 14 August 2006 (UTC)[reply]

David, I was taught painting at school by John Alford in Shrewsbury around 1980. Look up Shrewsbury School - they should be able to contact him. Sam Welbourne.

German Empire 1871 (Poland)

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Was the town of Kazimierza ever in the German Empire? Kazimierza is located 45KM NE of Krakow. I think that Krakow was under austrian rule at the time but not Kazimierza. If kazimierza was not under the german empire what was it under?

Thank You Leonard Seszycki

From the vague description, sounds like it would have been Russia. Only Silesia, "greater Pomerania", and "greater Prussia" were under German rule after 1815 -- see Image:HistoricSilesiamap.png , Image:Schlesien 1905.png etc... AnonMoos 16:18, 14 August 2006 (UTC)[reply]

Yes, it was. But it was not internationally recognized. Germany conquered Poland in 1939 and made nearly the whole of present Poland part of the Great Germanic Empire. The Red Army liberated this village in 1944. Since Krakow is east of Silesia, and Kazimierza as well, then it is clear that this village was not part of the German Empire before 1939. It has been part of Austria though.--Daanschr 18:34, 14 August 2006 (UTC)[reply]

A probable chronology of countries owning Kazimierza could be:

  • 10th century-1795: Poland
  • 1795-1809: Austria
  • 1809-1813: Warsaw (France)
  • 1815-1832: Poland (Russia)
  • 1832-1915: Russia
  • 1915-1918: Germany
  • 1918-1939: Poland
  • 1939-1944: Germany
  • 1945-present: Poland

Citation in Edward Mitchel bannister article

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Re: Resource Citation in Edward Mitchell Bannister article: Anne Louise Avery published a PhD dissertation called "The Veiled Landscape: Space and Place in E.M. Bannister's work...." 2006... and there is no reference to where it was published (what university, for example) and I would love to find it and read it! Can you help?

Bill Allen <e-mail removed, see Reference desk policies above>

Iran

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Which Iranian provinces have the most Arabs that speaks Arabic and that they are Sunni Muslims?

Most Arabic-speaking Iranians are found in Khuzestan and along the Persian Gulf coast. The Khuzestan Arabs are Shias. The Arabs in the area stretching from Bushehr to Bandar-e Abbas tend to be Sunnis. Source: AllRefer.com. --LambiamTalk 18:25, 14 August 2006 (UTC)[reply]

Do these Arabic-speaking Iranians still speak Persian?

You should read the page that Lambiam linked - Khuzestan!! They answer your questions. (go to the "languages" section). --Bmk 04:07, 15 August 2006 (UTC)[reply]

Music download

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what is music called that has nobody singin/ no vocals, and can you download that type of music if so where can you down load it. dylan arthur

It's called Instrumental music. You can download it anywhere where you download any other music. DJ Clayworth 17:39, 14 August 2006 (UTC)[reply]
The questioner may also be asking about MIDI music. Many popular songs are composed in MIDI, which has the capabilty of adding a vocal track, but in practice rarely does so. --Kainaw (talk) 18:57, 14 August 2006 (UTC)[reply]
The MIDI file format does not have the capability to add a vocal track. There is no recorded sound in a MIDI file, and there is no standard for speech synthesis that could be used to produce vocals from such a file. - Rainwarrior 02:14, 15 August 2006 (UTC)[reply]
Well, I could imagine some 'lalala' singing sound, although I don't know of any sound that would sound realistic enough. But add lyrics and it becomes near impossible. Or could a voice synthesiser work here? DirkvdM 07:49, 15 August 2006 (UTC)[reply]
MIDI does allow the inclusion of lyrics tied to notes in the file. And you can pass a program like flinger a MIDI with lyrics broken into syllables and attached to notes and it will sing it for you. So that might count :) digfarenough (talk) 17:07, 15 August 2006 (UTC)[reply]
MIDI allows for the inclusion of any sound source. 99.9999999999% (is that exact enough?) of them are instrument samples (mostly synthesized). Some are sampled instruments - a real recording of the instrument playing. As such, the sample can be a recording of a person singing. In practice, such samples are used to record fart noises (and the like) so you can play them on a MIDI keyboard. But, it is possible to have a long sample of a person singing all the lyrics and add that as a MIDI track to the song. Because of that one situation that, in reality, I've never heard of anyone doing, I don't want to say it is "impossible" to add vocals to a MIDI song. --Kainaw (talk) 19:47, 15 August 2006 (UTC)[reply]
Again, no, there are no samples in the MIDI file format or information specification. It is possible to use MIDI signals to control a specific sampler that you have loaded with a voice sample, but the sample is not MIDI. The sample is only being triggered by a MIDI signal. - Rainwarrior 04:38, 26 August 2006 (UTC)[reply]
Are you asking about Karaoke? That would be the backing music (no article in WikiPedia, sorry), or the instrumental background accompaniment (a somewhat dense and difficult article for the non-musically inclined, I think) without the singing or words of the original recording. You can find many sites for that if you go to a search engine like Google and type the words "karaoke download" in the search box, like so. --Seejyb 21:34, 15 August 2006 (UTC)[reply]
Hold on before you take Kainaw too seriously, some clarification about MIDI. It's like a pianola, recording when a key is struck (well, in pracitse it's keys, but in principle it could be anything else), how hard it is struck and when it is released. You can add some functionality to this, but that's basically it. You can also give a track a name like 'piano' and assign it to a channel and then hope that the one playing the MIDI recording has the same instruments assigned to the channels as you did. Anyway, yes you can play back a synthesised sound or a recording (the MIDI file doesn't care what sound you assign to it), but the idea is that each channel has one instrument assigned to it, with the different keys standign for different notes. Now you could use the different keys to trigger different sounds, and that is indeed done as a sort of added gimmick, aned you could extend that to an entire recording of a song (why limit it to the lyrics) and assign it to one key, but that is hardly what MIDI is meant for. You're 'supposed to' assign one note to one keystroke. You could also use a claw hammer to pick your nose, but that's not what it's meant for. :) DirkvdM 18:31, 16 August 2006 (UTC)[reply]
Oh my god! You think someone might take me seriously!? I'll have to start using the educated side of my brain instead of the side raised on Benny Hill, Monty Python, Fawlty Towers... Don't support PBS or your children may turn out like me! --Kainaw (talk) 01:22, 17 August 2006 (UTC)[reply]

Cost of World War II

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What would be approximate cost of World War II ? I've heard about 1 trillion dollars, would this be accurate ?

Does not seem like a lot, considering the Iraq-Iran war had about the same cost. Matt714 21:28, 14 August 2006 (UTC)[reply]

If we're not adjusting for inflation, they might be the same. Also, depending on what you count as the "costs", you could get some very different values. StuRat 22:08, 14 August 2006 (UTC)[reply]
Indeed. How does one measure the cost of a single life that might otherwise not have been lost. Let alone millions. JackofOz 22:52, 14 August 2006 (UTC)[reply]
The value is what you really think a human live is worth, perhaps 50cents or so :). Flamarande 23:23, 14 August 2006 (UTC)[reply]
I wouldn't pay much for a human live. But a live human, or a human life, well, that's something else again. :--) JackofOz 01:55, 15 August 2006 (UTC)[reply]
One could actually quantify this. The cost of a late teenager is the investment put into them (food, education, ...) that hasn't resulted in the expected return (through work). The cost of a pensioner would then be negative (yes, I'm being rude again). But most deaths will have been younger people (soldiers). Any statistics on that? Ironically, after a destructive war, the value of work and therefore of the worker increases because of the need to build society back up again. Another factor is that destruction of the old will bring more of the new, which might be a boost to both the economy and welfare (in the long run). A bit hard to assess, that. DirkvdM 08:31, 15 August 2006 (UTC)[reply]
Well, there were lots of civilians killed - more nations were invaded and lost solely civilians than those not theatres of war losing military personnel. This article is very informative. There are lots of factors to be considered when calculating the cost of war - not just the value of a life. The ongoing costs, in welfare benefits, medical treatment, psychological treatment etc for veterans and victims (and their children), are huge. As are the costs of rebuilding, not just buildings but infrastructure, and industries such as agriculture. There may be personal cost to the survivors to consider, such as people who lost millions of dollars of assets to looting artworks and such. All of these things are then offset by the economic benefits of war - there is a scarcity of resources, costs are high and high-profit industries are in demand. Rebuilding is economically beneficial to all sorts of subsidiary industries. You could also argue that the loss of ~65 million people may have been good for the economy - overpopulation at that level may have had really negative consequences. So, to answer the OP's question, I think the cost of war is incalculable, and I think Dirk may be on to something. Natgoo 18:28, 15 August 2006 (UTC)[reply]

Safe Air Travel

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How about this -- treat the airplane just like a movie theater: no outside food/drinks allowed. We need to dispense with the high gadgets and just say you can't bring anything on board except the clothes on your back. All food, drinks and comfort will be provided by the airlines. That the only way to truly make things safe. Or if overhead luggage is allowed, it must be locked down for the entire flight: no access at all.

Here is my idea.

Nudist Airways

All passengers must board the plane completely nude. Furthermore, each passenger must eat a mouthful of pork before they are allowed on board the plane. All passengers are handcuffed during the duration of the flight. All lights in the cabin are turn off and the windows shutters are pulled down.

I guarranty there will be not a single terrorist incident on Nudist Airways. Ohanian 22:43, 14 August 2006 (UTC)[reply]

I'm assuming this is satire, but at any rate, what is the question? I really just think people should calm down, anyway, since if the terrorists are determined enough they'll get themselves through... —Keakealani Poke Mecontribs 22:49, 14 August 2006 (UTC)[reply]

Oh yes, I forgot to ask the question. Would you travel on Nudist Airways if the fares are 10% cheaper than other Airlines?

Ohanian 23:01, 14 August 2006 (UTC)[reply]

I would have thought Nudist Airlines would be more in the spirit of "100% off".... - Nunh-huh 23:13, 14 August 2006 (UTC)[reply]
"If God had meant for people to fly, they would have been born with wings. And if He meant for them to be nudists, they would have been born buck naked." :-) StuRat 00:27, 15 August 2006 (UTC)[reply]
If people had meant God to fly, he would have been an angel. DirkvdM 08:39, 15 August 2006 (UTC)[reply]
What's with the pork? No Jews and vegetarians allowed on board? Oh, and you forgot about swallowed weapons, so people would have to take some laxative too, some time in advance - sort of a check out during check in. DirkvdM 08:39, 15 August 2006 (UTC)[reply]
I suspect they were having a go at Muslims, presumably on the basis that "Muslim = terrorist". JackofOz 23:30, 15 August 2006 (UTC)[reply]

Britsh and american accents

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In the U.S. many men and woman find British/ Commonwealth accents sexy; do many british/ commonwealth people find American accents sexy?

It's hard to say... there are many different American accents, just as there are many different British regional and Commonwealth accents. I'm presuming what you are talking about is the Received Pronunciation of stock English characters (usually villains or butlers) in films and television, which seems sexy to some because it implies refinement and culture. What you also have to realise though is that the UK and Commonwealth are saturated with American television and films, and are much more "used to" an American accent than would happen the other way around, so I don't think it works quite the same way as a US accent doesn't seem as "unusual" or "different" to what one is used to hearing. --Canley 01:11, 15 August 2006 (UTC)[reply]
Speaking personally as a UKer, I have to say in all honesty that I find US accents (male or female) in general unpleasent to listen to, and not sexy. But I just accept this as they are everywere on TV and in films. Even the best-spoken female film stars, who take care not to speak nasally etc., are still unattractive due to the connotations of America and the stereotype of Americans. For sexy you want French, Italian, and even Indian and Asian.
Of course, if all Brits found American accents annoying and refused to watch, then UK TV wouldn't be saturated with US TV programs, would it ? StuRat 23:20, 27 August 2006 (UTC)[reply]
Aww, I like British stuff, and that was a letdown :( - CRiyl 18:28, 20 August 2006 (UTC)[reply]
And my dreams of being fawned over are dashed :P But I have noticed that these things greatly depend on individual persons. Some find any accent they do not possess attractive (be it Cockney, US Southern, Indian, etc.), while others are more specific (for instance, they find Scottish accents too grandfatherly to be attractive in THAT sense). I do pick up on accents quickly myself (which I'm afraid results in listener whiplash), so maybe I have a chance yet... ;) Russia Moore 22:55, 26 August 2006 (UTC)[reply]

Jo Swinson

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Would Jo Swinson MP be attracted to men with standard American accents, who also have good careers?

You managed to spell her name right! Congratulations. That is so sexy... But lawyer doctors with a standard accent? Can't you develop a gay lisp or something that makes you stand out? That would be really cool. --LambiamTalk 07:26, 15 August 2006 (UTC)[reply]

Why not drop her a line at the Houses of Parliament? :) and see whether you get a reply? Lemon martini 19:00, 15 August 2006 (UTC)[reply]

To tell you the truth I am scared of girls. I am 25 years old but I have never been on a date!

Then I suggest you practice first being more comfortable with women. What is it you're afraid of? The fact is, women are more easily attracted to men who are comfortable with women (and with themselves), and who exude a fair degree of self-confidence, than with men who behave like losers. You don't actually have to be confident, as long as you behave like it. Being groomed and dressed well also helps, but don't overdo it. You may profit from some personal advice and counselling, both from older women and older men who you can confide in. --LambiamTalk 03:05, 16 August 2006 (UTC)[reply]

lawyer doctor degrees

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I hold a JD, would it be exceptable for me to use the title of Doctor?

The lower the law school literacy standards, the more necessary it is to distinguish yourself with a fancy title?
Skrew you!
Sorry to be harsh. It is unusual to see a lawyer unable to compose a single grammatical sentence and you packed a record number of syntax, grammar, and punctuation errors into your question-- not just typos. Second, you are socially "tone-deaf" if you haven't noticed that American lawyers don't habitually refer to themselves as "doctor" even though most hold a JD or equivalent. The combination of the specific question and the way it was expressed evokes such an image of ignorant pomposity that I couldn't help it. Work on your language skills if you want to impress people with your educational achievements, not your degree. 159.14.18.144 15:46, 15 August 2006 (UTC)[reply]
Your initial reply was extremely uncivil, insulting and inappropriate, and your second posting did not improve the tone. If your face to face discourse were of a like nature, your nose would likely be occasionally punched. And yes, "Doctor" is an acceptable form of address to one who holds a Juris Doctor, although "Counsellor" is more common. Edison 16:51, 22 August 2006 (UTC)[reply]
Very exceptable, as long as you except the fact that, accept for those in the US, most law schools in common law jurisdictions offer LLBs rather than JDs. You may find that if you visit some of these jurisdictions, many lawyers may take acception to the idea of you calling yourself a Doctor. Loomis 01:44, 15 August 2006 (UTC)[reply]
I guess the lesson to be learned here is to make sure your English is correct before mentioning that you hold a JD. The Jade Knight 03:59, 15 August 2006 (UTC)[reply]
I've never been one to pick on typos, or the inadvertent misuse of their/they're/their or its/it's. I do these things all the time when typing faster than I can think. I just found this case to be rather acceptional. :-) Loomis 13:01, 15 August 2006 (UTC)[reply]
Juris Doctor. --LarryMac 15:17, 15 August 2006 (UTC)[reply]
I Googled around to see if I could maybe help Loomis out here, but had no luck. Does anyone know, are there courses available to increase one's thinking rate, so that one can keep up with your typing speed? --Seejyb 22:15, 15 August 2006 (UTC)[reply]

Am i being really blonde, where are the mistakes in the question "I hold a JD, would it be exceptable for me to use the title of Doctor?"

OK, I'll do the decent thing and put you out of your misery. Accept means to receive, except means to exclude. Instead of "exceptable", they should have written "acceptable". OK? JackofOz 08:55, 24 August 2006 (UTC)[reply]
Oh, I am a hopeless failure as an English tutor. I bow my head in shame :P I can't beleiev I didn't catch that. Russia Moore 22:59, 26 August 2006 (UTC)[reply]
And then there is the "Skrew you !" reply. When corresponding with politicians, I'm careful to use the proper spelling, so always close with a proper "Screw you !". StuRat