Wikipedia:Reference desk/Archives/Humanities/2007 November 28

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November 28[edit]

Socialist economy[edit]

Would a socialist economy similar to the Soviet Union's be able to prosper in the modern age? From reading Wikipedia, it seems that the USSR had a very strong economy in the 1940's and 1950's, but that it eventually failed because business decisions were too numerous and had to be made too quickly for the five-year plans to handle. --Bowlhover (talk) 01:48, 28 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]

As long as they were following Lysenkoism in the 1940s, their agricultural system was doomed for failure.--droptone (talk) 13:16, 28 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]

It is difficult to see, Bowlhover, how the Stalinist 'command model' could ever prosper in a technically advanced world, where one economy is deeply linked to another. It can, and did, work as a path to development and modernisation in an economically backward society like Russia in the 1930s, though at an extraordinarily high human cost. Even so, while building an impressive industrial base, the Soviet system created some severe long-term problems in both the agricultural and consumer sectors, weaknesses which led in the end to the collapse of the whole unstable structure. But the greatest weakness of all, as you clearly understand, is that a modern economy, and modern forms of economic development, demand a high degree of initiative and flexibility in decision-making and the optimum use of resources, not allowed for in the top-down Stalinist model. Clio the Muse (talk) 00:37, 29 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]

This Is Not A Homework Question.[edit]

I swear to god, this is not a physics question I read this question in a physics magazine. A plane accelerates from at a rate of10.0 m/s How far will the plane travel in one second. The Knowns


are Vi=U.O MS Vf-10.0 MS t- 1s

Unknownn d= Formula VF Vi tat Please, help I know you have a policy aganist homework question but this is NOT one. —Preceding unsigned comment added by 68.161.102.229 (talk) 02:06, 28 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]

You've apparently misread the question. "m/s" is "meters per second". It is a velocity, not an acceleration. It appears that the initial speed is 0.0 m/s and the final velocity is 10.0 m/s after 1 second. That would make the acceleration 10 m/s2 (change in velocity over time). Calculating the distance traveled is pretty much a calculus problem, but the formula has been reduced to simple algebra as ut + 1/2 at2. Your initial velocity (u) is zero, so ignore the ut. The 1/2 at2 = 1/2 10m/s2 (1s)2 = 5m. -- kainaw 02:27, 28 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]
  • I think Kainaw's advice is correct. In the future, though, I recommend using Wikipedia:Reference desk/Science for questions like this, as you're more likely to find people who understand physics equations on that page. --M@rēino 16:50, 28 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]

Nude Bowl location[edit]

I've been searching the Internet for a source containing the location of the Nude Bowl. I know it was destroyed about 15 years ago and there is a housing development being built on top of where it was. I want to verify that where I remember it being located is the actual spot it was located. Did anyone here visit it and remember how you got there? I know the chance of finding a bunch of people who skated in southern CA in the mid 80's and now frequents the Wikipedia RD is asking for a lot. -- kainaw 02:10, 28 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]

I saw on the talk page that you have tried to locate it via satellite imagery and have a candidate site. Why don't you give me the coordinates of the site you think it is at? I'll happily look through older satellite photos from the 1990s of the same place and see if it looked different then. --24.147.86.187 (talk) 03:51, 28 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]
Just as a note, if the housing development you refer to is that large white area to the west of Joshua Tree, from what I can tell that wasn't there until 2006 or so. --24.147.86.187 (talk) 03:57, 28 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]
The link is here. I believe that is 33.961462,-116.59885. When it was there (before 1993), you should be able to see the kidney bean shaped pool and at least 3 rectangular building foundations. -- kainaw 04:01, 28 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]
Nothing jumps out at me in the 1996 map. Could it be a bit farther up the mountain? If you go up about a mile and a half you come across this interesting structure, which looks more correct to my unknowing eye. It was there in 1996 too.--24.147.86.187 (talk) 04:41, 28 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]
The "interesting" structure is not the Nude Bowl. It is a Church of Scientology building - I drove past that area many times. I was looking around the area - which was difficult because it kept snapping back to 2007 every time I touched the map. I couldn't find anything and then I remembered that it was destroyed in 1993 - so it wouldn't be on a 1996 map. -- kainaw 13:29, 28 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]
Interesting about the Scientology building—good to know! Yeah, that site's interface sucks. I would have hoped that some remnants of the destroyed site would still be there (the foundations should be visible from the air, for example). I'll poke around and see if I can find earlier photos of the area; I don't know why but for some reason I want to find it!! --24.147.86.187 (talk) 00:42, 29 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]
Actually it isn't a church building or Scietology building but is in fact the ruins of "Desert Gardens Ranch" nudist resort. Pierson Blvd from Desert Hot Springs going west was the route into the resort. The "Highland Falls" project blocked off Pierson and so no one can access the site. talk 13:29, 5 March 2008 (UTC)[reply]

What make of guitar is this?[edit]

I suppose this is the right part of the Reference Desk, as this is a question related to music - I was recently watching Blancmange's peformance of "Living on the Ceiling" on the DVD of The Tube and noticed that Neil Arthur was playing some sort of guitar I didn't recognise.

Here's a screen capture (the best one I could get from the clip). I'm pretty certain that it's some form of Epiphone, as I believe that's their logo I see underneath the strings. If anyone could tell me what sort of Epiphone it is, I'd be very grateful. 211.30.58.79 (talk) 02:34, 28 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]

Looks like a Coronet to me. Mid 60s. I'm not an Epiphone expert, so I can't pinpoint the year. -- kainaw 02:37, 28 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]
This does not look like an epiphone to me but rather like a squire or fender or some sort of remake there of. However, it does seem to have a scalloped neck which indicates to me the it is probably a top of the rang Fender, as scalloped necked guitars are rare, expensive, and oh so beautiful, please excuse me while I drool. you migyt want to check out www.driskill.com. some of the most beautiful axes EVER. —Preceding unsigned comment added by 12.191.136.3 (talk) 16:30, 28 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]
I checked with a coworker here (who is the closest thing to a guitar expert I have access to). He said it is definitely a 1965 Epiphone Coronet which came in a reddish-brown cherry-wood finish. Your image has the color messed up, showing it as brown. I did a google image search for 1965 Epiphone Coronet and found many images that were identical. -- kainaw 17:15, 28 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]

energy efficient houses & normal houses[edit]

How much energy does the average energy efficient house use each year? How much energy does the average normal house use each year?thanks--76.235.183.66 (talk) 02:47, 28 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]

You should probably ask this on the Science reference desk, but you'll need to give more specific information if you want a decent answer. "Average" worldwide, or for a particular country, or particular city? And how are you distinguishing between "energy-efficient" and "normal"? There are many things that can be done in various degrees to increase energy efficiency; it's not an all-or-nothing split. --Anonymous, edited 04:04 UTC, November 28.

Thank u so much--76.235.183.66 (talk) 21:03, 28 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]

Flags at sea[edit]

Question (Someone already asked and I didn't know): What's the point of a maritime/marine flag? Couldn't civilian ships just fly the official national flag? 68.39.174.238 (talk) 03:08, 28 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]

See maritime flag. They have more meaning than just the nationality of the ship. -- kainaw 03:25, 28 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]

The slaves of haiti came from the entire alantic slave trade?[edit]

The labor for these plantations was provided by an estimated 790,000 African slaves (accounting in 1783-1791 for a third of the entire Atlantic slave trade) they got them from all these regions:

Senegambia (Senegal and The Gambia): 4.8% Upper Guinea (Guinea-Bissau, Guinea and Sierra Leone): 4.1% Windward Coast (Liberia and Cote d' Ivoire): 1.8% Gold Coast (Ghana): 10.4% Bight of Benin (Togo, Benin and Nigeria west of the Niger Delta): 20.2% Bight of Biafra (Nigeria east of the Niger Delta, Cameroon, Equatorial Guinea and Gabon): 14.6% West Central Africa (Republic of Congo, Democratic Republic of Congo and Angola): 39.4% Southeastern Africa (Mozambique and Madagascar): 4.7% —Preceding unsigned comment added by TerrorSonghai (talkcontribs) 03:44, 28 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]

What exactly is the question here? --24.147.86.187 (talk) 05:00, 28 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]
The same question he always asks, probably. Slaves in Haiti came from all over West Africa, which did not yet have its modern countries with their modern borders. Adam Bishop (talk) 07:56, 28 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]
In this case I think the question is as follows. Sourced data on a breakdown of the provenance of slaves are given in the section "Slave Market Regions and Participation" of our article Atlantic slave trade (and replicated in the posting). Can this breakdown be assumed to also apply to the provenance of Haitian slaves? The answer to this question is, of course, no. There are all kinds of possible reasons why the sources for a more specific target location may be different from the average.  --Lambiam 11:20, 28 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]

The difference a person can make in the infinitely long term[edit]

Have any theorems yet been proven that constrain the possible value of

where f(t) is the utility or happiness per capita of all people in the world at time t; f'(t) is the utility or happiness per capita they would have at time t, ceteris paribus, had a particular person never existed; and t = 0 represents the time of that person's death? Are there any theorems on how that person must live in order to maximize the above quantity? NeonMerlin 05:14, 28 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]

I have no idea about that specific formula, but can any semi-rigorous looking theory that relies on hypotheticals like "had the particular person never existed" possibly be anything more than pseudoscience? --24.147.86.187 (talk) 05:21, 28 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]
It's hard to make any strong assertion if functions f and f' are not specified: I suggest, in any case, that you take a look onto this topic. Pallida  Mors 05:28, 28 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]
Anyway, some comments I hope are helpful: If the integral converges (which means it has a concrete value less than infinity), then the limit you are seeking is zero. If the integral diverges, but has a linear asymptotic behavior [ie is O(t) in big-oh notation], then the final limit is a real number. Pallida  Mors 05:39, 28 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]
Is there any particular reason why a part of your question was written in the Latin language? -- JackofOz (talk) 08:40, 28 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]
See Ceteris paribus. The clause is commonly used when making predictions about causality. GreatManTheory (talk) 12:43, 28 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]
If someone told you "Yes, I have a proof that −9.3 is a lower bound and 13.6 is an upper bound", what would you know then in pragmatic terms that you don't know already?  --Lambiam 10:51, 28 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]
It would mean that in the infinitely long run, neither I nor anyone else ran any risk of harming the average quality of life in this world by more than 9.6 utils per person per day, nor had any hope of improving it by more than 13.6 utils per person per day. NeonMerlin 19:21, 29 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]
How much is 1 util, roughly, in, say, Big Mac equivalents or some other measure for which I have some intuition? Is it possible to give bounds on the quality of life of a single individual, ranging over all theoretically possible circumstances (from being giving 400 whip lashes and rubbed with salt each day while being alternately waterboarded and force-fed on live cockroaches, to being surrounded by a loving and most loveable collection of exquisitely beautiful creatures whose greatest happiness is to cater for your every wish)?  --Lambiam 15:58, 30 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]
An answer in any version of the util would be fine, as long as that version is fully specified. I was actually expecting that any finite non-zero answers would be in terms of other constants. A util could be equivalent to (taking into account diminishing marginal utility) the first Big Mac of the year, or to negative the first 400 whip lashes of the day, or whatever. NeonMerlin 07:54, 1 December 2007 (UTC)[reply]
Assuming lower and upper bounds on the quality of life of a single individual, the difference between the two has to be a bound on the happiness per capita. I would not trust a proof that this bound is not sharp; that would depend on some unprovable belief. Exercise: determine how many first Big Macs of the year are needed to balance the first 400 whip lashes of the day.  --Lambiam 16:13, 1 December 2007 (UTC)[reply]
I am not sure about the mathematics, but a good example from history of the impact of a single individual would be Alexander the Great of Macedon. I would hazard a guess that no other single person - that can be historically verified to have actually lived - has had such an enormous impact on the lives of so many people as Alexander. -- Saukkomies 09:06, 2 December 2007 (EST)
What is his impact on people living today? NeonMerlin 19:53, 2 December 2007 (UTC)[reply]
Well, for starters, democracy, the fact that we have mathematics, schools, science, technology above the level of the iron age, etc. Alexander spread Greek learning and culture throughout the lands he conquered, making it so that Greek learning was picked up by other peoples and carried forward. Plato, Aristotle, Socrates, Pythagorus, etc - all of these men are known about today because of Alexander's spreading of Greek influence throughout much of the known world of his day. It would be almost impossible to imagine what the world would be like today had Alexander not lived. Saukkomies 03:06, 4 December 2007 (UTC)

Malthus the monster[edit]

Was Thomas Malthus as cold hearted as usually depicted? Cryinggame (talk) 06:46, 28 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]

Although our article on Thomas Malthus does not pay specific attention, one way or another, to the warmth or coldness of his personal character, the statement that his students affectionately referred to him as "Pop" can be interpreted as implying that they at least did not view him as a monster. Furthermore, his epitaph contains this sentence: "The spotless integrity of his principles, the equity and candour of his nature, his sweetness of temper, urbanity of manners and tenderness of heart, his benevolence and his piety are still dearer recollections of his family and friends."  --Lambiam 10:37, 28 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]
Is Malthus usually depicted as cold hearted ? I thought he was simply pointing out the logical consequences of unchecked population growth. I don't think he saw a Malthusian catastrophe as a desirable outcome or even as an inevitable fate. It was something that humanity should strive to avoid through appropriate social engineeering. Gandalf61 (talk) 17:29, 28 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]
I can't answer your question, but it reminds me of these lines of C. S. Lewis's, writing approvingly of Walter Scott and Samuel Taylor Coleridge -
"An England at that time half numbed to death
With Paley's, Bentham's, Malthus' wintry breath."
This is from a poem called 'To Roy Campbell'. Xn4 19:48, 28 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]

Yes, he and his work certainly generated a lot of vilification and misunderstanding while he was alive, arguably more than any other comprable figure. I suppose his image is the equivalent, in the real world, to that of Charles Dicken's Gradgrind; calculating and rather joyless. He may have been 'Old Pop' to his pupils, but offended religionists called him the 'Malthusian Devil'. For Karl Marx he was a 'shameless sycophant of the ruling class.' Poets like Coleridge, Byron and Southey cast him in the role of the misanthrope; and for William Cobbett he was, quite simply, 'a monster.' But, as so often in cases like this, people, even highly informed people, fail to draw a distinction between the thinker and the thought. The thought is stark, cold and alarming so, too, must be the thinker. The evidence would suggest otherwise! Clio the Muse (talk) 01:12, 29 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]

Napoleon's second greatest disaster[edit]

Before the advance on Moscow what was the greatest setback in Napoleon's military career? Stockmann (talk) 07:09, 28 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]

You should check out Napoleon's article-Yamanbaiia (talk) 11:41, 28 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]
Perhaps there's an argument for the Battle of Trafalgar, which is a big and famous and significant event, the most pivotal naval battle of the Napoleonic Wars. In general terms, though, the reverses of the Peninsular War were surely a greater setback for Bonaparte, of which one major failure was thanks to the Lines of Torres Vedras. Sir Charles Oman suggests a big turning point when a French army led by Masséna arrived at Wellington's new line of forts to protect Lisbon in October 1810. In his History of the Peninsular War (Volume III), Oman says of a skirmish at Sobral de Monte Agraço, "On that misty October 14th morning, at Sobral, the Napoleonic tide attained its highest watermark."
I look forward to seeing Clio's thoughts on this. Xn4 20:58, 28 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]
I'm glad!
Now, thinking here of campaigns actually lead by Napoleon in person, as opposed to French campaigns and reverses in the wider wars, I, as a personal choice, would have to select the whole ill-judged adventure of 1798 and 1799 in Egypt and the Middle East. It showed, for those of a mind to read the signs, all of Napoleon's worst defects as a soldier and as a man: his conviction in his own invincibility, that seduced him into the illusion that it only needed a few thousand Frenchmen under his command to bring down the whole of the Ottoman Empire; his impatience and improvisation, causing him to embark on expeditions with virtually no preparation; his ruthelessness and contempt for the welfare of his own men, who served no purpose but his greater glory. The advance to Acre in the spring of 1799 is a perfect foretaste of the advance on Moscow: vain, pointless, wasteful. He took 26,000 men into Palestine; only 5000 returned back across Sinai. Soon after he escaped back to France, leaving his army behind, there to report mirages as triumphs; to seize power on the road to ever greater vanities. Clio the Muse (talk) 01:44, 29 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]
I would second Clio the Muse's opinion on this. I believe that the Egyptian Campaign was a horrendous mistake from a purely military perspective. It was a fore-taste of the Moscow campaign a dozen years later... ---Saukkomies 9:12, 2 December 2007 (EST)
Not to argue with the great Muse, but he made two great mistakes: The first, he made several times: The assumption that he, with a few good soldiers, could conquer any objective. The second he only made once, but he never seemed to notice he was wrong: The assumption that any size army could defeat a navy. With his first, he frittered away the cream of his people. With the second, he ensured that he could never win. Yes, that's oversimplified, but England/UK didn't need to out-build his army to win. They only needed to out-build his navy to never lose. -SandyJax 23:00, 30 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]

Les Miserables (by Victor Hugo) - Sequels?[edit]

I was online a few years back and read that there are sequels to Les Miserables (the sequels obviously not written by Victor Hugo); I was wondering what the titles of the sequels are and their authors? I'm pretty sure (from what i remember) there are at least two different sequels maybe more. —Preceding unsigned comment added by 75.71.223.87 (talk) 08:12, 28 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]

There are a few listed over at Les Misérables#Adaptations in other media-Yamanbaiia (talk) 11:33, 28 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]

I read in the adaptations part of wikipedia article that there is a sequel titled "Cosette or The Time of Illusion" by Francois Cesera; but I have also heard that there is a sequel titled "Cosette" by a Laura Kalpakian - are these the only two sequels or are there more? And if so what are their titles and authors? —Preceding unsigned comment added by 75.71.223.87 (talk) 07:42, 29 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]

Teddy bear blasphemy case[edit]

A British teacher at Unity High School (Sudan) is in custody after her class named a teddy bear Muhammad. See the article for more details. As Muhammad (name) demonstrates, it's a very common name. So what exactly are the sensitivities surrounding the name? How does one differentiate between an image of the prophet Muhammad, which as I understand it is regarded as blasphemous, and an image of a person (or, for that matter, a teddy bear) named Muhammad, which would not be condemned? --Richardrj talk email 08:29, 28 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]

Never mind - I've now read this discussion of the issue. --Richardrj talk email 11:35, 28 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]
The other thing, after you have read the article that Richardrj has kindly linked for us, is to bear in mind the political dynamics going on here with the UK looking to 'demonise' the radical Muslims who have allegedly been offended by the incident and the authorities in Sudan who are afraid of not doing the politically/religiously correct thing in their own country. Unless you're a radical muslim, or even a muslim, this incident may appear trivial but we all must respect the customs of countries we move to, especially in areas as sensitive as this. My personal belief is that this is an incident based on poor judgement and ignorance with no bad intention.Richard Avery (talk) 15:40, 28 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]
Uh, are you aware the OP and the second poster are the same person? Algebraist 02:22, 29 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]

Cromwell and the radicals[edit]

Why did Oliver Cromwell become such an appealing model for nineteenth century radicals?217.43.14.123 (talk) 10:49, 28 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]

Because he was a radical, in a way, in his own time? Overthrowing a several hundred year old state and killing the king (and living to enjoy the results of same) is probably what alot of 1800s radicals wished they could do (Or would happen); I'm guessing. 68.39.174.238 (talk) 01:04, 29 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]

There is really no great surprise here. Vilified for centuries, he was resurrected as an icon for a new generation, who saw in him a kind of metaphor for their own struggles and for their own victories; who saw in him what the eye has means of seeing. And some, perhaps, my understand that these particular words are not chosen at random; for it was Thomas Carlyle in his 1841 essay in Heroes and Hero-Worship, followed a few years later by his edition of Oliver Cromwell's Letters and Speeches who presented him afresh to a modern audience, a new and self-confident middle-class; newly enfranchised and newly powerful. It was Carlyle's myth of Cromwell as the self-made man that was so appealing to the political ambitions of his Victorian counterpart. This was also a Cromwell 'without history' it might be said, a symbol who could appeal to the industrial capitalist, on the one hand, and the radical Chartist, on the other. He was a hero for a new heroic age, massacre, dictatorship, betrayal and intolerance all conveniently forgotten. Clio the Muse (talk) 02:08, 29 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]

Soviet campaign against the Church[edit]

I hope I've come to the right place. I'm looking for an article, if there are any, on the early soviet campaign against the church in Russia, in the time before Stalin. What specific action was taken? Freedom of conscience had been part of the Communist programme in 1917. Why was this not observed? Thank you for your patience. Pompey Bum (talk) 14:07, 28 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]

Check Russian Orthodox Church. --— Gadget850 (Ed) talk - 18:20, 28 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]
Bezbozhniki... AnonMoos (talk) 23:34, 28 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]

Freedom of conscience enjoyed a brief season in early Soviet Russia, and even the Salvation Army was to be found in Moscow up until 1920. No such tolerance was ever extended to the Orthodox Church because it was perceived always in political rather than in confessional terms, a prop of the old Tsarist regime. It was the last institution of any size, moreover, to have any hold on the loyalties of the population at large, a competitor to the Bolshevik Party. During the famine of 1921 the Church was even refused permission to organise relief operations. The emergency provided a perfect excuse, though, to rob it of much of its remaining assets and sacred relecs, a campaign organised by the Cheka under the direction of Felix Dzerzhinsky, a doctrinare atheist. When parishioners tried to prevent the despoliation of their local churches, Lenin supported extreme measures against them. Many peasants were executed by the Cheka in consequence.

In the campaign that followed some 2,700 priests and 5,000 monks and nuns perished. In March 1922 Tikhon, the Patriarch of Moscow, was imprisoned as a 'saboteur.' Trotsky even suggested arresting the whole of the Holy Synod. In Moscow fifty-four senior clerics and senior parishioners were put on trial, eleven of whom were sentenced to death. In Petrograd Bishop Veniamin was 'tried' and shot on the urging of Grigory Zinoviev, even though he had offered no resistance to the seizure of church property. Vyacheslav Menzhinsky, the party's leading blasphemer, organised a press campaign after Patriarch Tikon's death in 1925, against Piotr Poliansky, his designated successor. He also set up an anti-religious commission and a worker's organisation called the Society of the Godless. And so it continued, to greater or lesser degrees of intensity, into the imperium of Stalin. Clio the Muse (talk) 02:57, 29 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]

There are approximately ten billion short stories called "Summer Heat"[edit]

And I'm looking for a specific one, and don't know the author!

I read it ages ago for a class. It's about a wackjob artist who kills a mason. Or perhaps it was a mason who killed an artist. And it takes place in late 19th or early 20th century Britain or North America.

And now you see why I cannot track it down, heh.

Can anyone help? —Preceding unsigned comment added by 216.56.80.38 (talk) 14:46, 28 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]

Do you remember ANY specific proper noun in in? The Mason's name, the artists, a place location, a building name, a specific turn of phrase used, etc.? Googling <"Summer Heat" [Remembered name]> will probably help alot. 68.39.174.238 (talk) 01:07, 29 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]

The actual title is "August Heat". I don't recall the author's name, but it was, I believe , in the first volume of the Pan Book of Horror Stories. And the mason kills the artist. Rhinoracer (talk) 11:33, 29 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]

Thank you thank you thank you!
This one? [1] Interesting tale. --— Gadget850 (Ed) talk - 12:02, 29 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]

Law question - holding suspects without charge[edit]

With the recent plans in the UK to extend the amount of time suspects can be held without charge (from 28 to 90 days), I wondered if this is detailed anywhere here, and how the UK compares with other countries worldwide. I've searched for variations on the phrase but can't turn anything up. Is there a name for this aspect of the criminal justice system? Widsith (talk) 15:46, 28 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]

The relevant legislation is at Terrorism Act 2006#Extending the period of detention without charge. 86.21.74.40 (talk) 16:58, 28 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]

Deleted accidental double-post.

  • I don't know the answer to your question, but I am pretty sure that if anyone collects data on that, Human Rights Watch would. --M@rēino 20:13, 28 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]
Israel have a vaguely similar system called administrative detention. Algebraist 02:21, 29 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]
  • As far as the position in Australia is concerned, the police have no power to detain a person for the purpose of questioning or investigation, or to hold them pending inquiries. In theory, if the police wish to hold anyone under compulsion for the purpose of questioning in relation to the person's alleged involvement in the commission of an offence, they must arrest that person if they have the requisite belief in or knowledge of the commission of a crime to justify an arrest. However, both state and federal law recognise that, in reality, a person who voluntarily enters a police car, or accompanies police to a police station or some other place, or who voluntarily surrenders to police in relation to an alleged crime may not thereafter be free to leave police custody, though they may not have been arrested or formally charged with any crime. Under state law, suspects in this situation are deemed to be "in custody" (see definition in the Crimes Act 1958 (Victoria) sec 464(1)(c) [2]) and under federal law to be "under arrest" (see definition in the Crimes Act 1914 (Commonwealth) sec 23B(2) [3]). They are entitled to the same procedures and protections as available to arrested persons. Having said that, there is an exception contained in the Australian Security Intelligence Organisation Act 1979 (Cth) [4] with respect to terrorism offences. In particular, sec 34S provides that Pt III Div D (which deals with certain obligations and protections relating to questioning and detention warrants) "does not authorise a person to be detained for a continuous period of more than 168 hours" (equivalent to 7 days). --60.240.112.112 (talk) 09:15, 29 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]

Pitch notation in Spanish.[edit]

Language desk? Humanities desk? Hmm.

I recently saw a tango music performance, and was interested in some unusual characteristics that the bassist's instrument had. He spoke only Spanish, and mine is a little rusty, but enough to work. One thing I noticed is that he didn't seem to understand when I asked about pitches in terms of A, B, C..., and instead corrected me using solfege syllables. For example, "this is the 'mi' string, this is the 'la' string..." and so on. The Spanish page on Escala musical seems to do the same.

Solfege#Fixed_Do_solfege looks similar, but doesn't seem sufficient for musical purposes beyond teaching children a scale. How is absolute pitch referred to in Spanish? Is "Do" always equivalent to C? How would I refer to an G major chord in a G major song, and is it different than the same absolute pitch in a C major song? jeffjon (talk) 17:53, 28 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]

Having scanned the Spanish articles Nota musical and Escala musical, I think that the absolute pitches that are designated in English with letters (A, B, C, D, etc.) are designated in Spanish by the solfege names. The relative pitches in a scale that might be designated in English with solfege names seem to be designated in Spanish with numbered intervals, though it may be more common to use the solfege terms referring to the relevant absoute pitches. Marco polo (talk) 18:30, 28 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]
So, to answer your final questions, yes, it seems that Do is always equivalent to C. A G major chord would be Sol mayor whether it occurs in a G major piece or a C major piece. Marco polo (talk) 18:34, 28 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]
Yes, that's the way notes are said and understood in Spanish. Do, re, mi, fa, sol, la, si for C, D, E....B. Notice that common ordering of them corresponds to the Ionian mode. Pallida  Mors 19:09, 28 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]
Note that the solfege names are normally used in English exclusively in the context of teaching to sing. In explaining chords, you wouldn't say in English, if you want to indicate relative pitch, that a major tonic chord consists of a do, mi and sol, but use terms like third and fifth. Likewise in the Romance languages. Therefore, the risk of ambiguity there is practically absent.  --Lambiam 20:09, 28 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]
To give a final answer to your question, Jeff, Do is exactly C. And "La" over middle "Do" (Middle C) is (generally) fixed at 440 Hertz. Ups, that's exactly what Marco Polo has said above.
Though A-G English names for notes are hardly used, most musicians (especially young ones) are familiar with this nomenclature for chords: So they will understand Am as "La menor (minor)". Pallida  Mors 21:49, 28 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]
Apparently the middle-aged bassist gentleman at the cafe in Bariloche was an exception to that rule. So it would be comprehensible and correct to say "Hay un tercera mayor entre mi y so sostenido", and "Un acorde do mayor tiene do, mi, y so"? jeffjon (talk) 22:04, 28 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]
Yeah, both right. Please note that the name for G is "sol". They wouldn't recognize "so" for that note. Two very small corrections: "un acorde de do mayor" and una tercera mayor. Pallida  Mors 00:30, 29 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]

romanian family[edit]

I need to know about the responsibilities, duties, jobs, usual lifestyle, of a Romanian family. For example: my duties in my family are to take out the garbage and wash the dishes. I need Parental jobs, responsibilities and child responsibilities and jobs. —Preceding unsigned comment added by 142.33.228.216 (talk) 19:14, 28 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]

Parental duties include raising the kids, if any, feeding them healthy meals, making sure they brush their teeth, are properly dressed when going out, and do their homework. In general it would be primarily the parents' responsibility to keep the house in order and clean, fixing things that are broken (or having them fixed), paying the bills, you name it. What else would you expect? Duties assigned to children are not a fixed formula but will depend very much on the family.  --Lambiam 19:53, 28 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]

Conspiracy[edit]

Does being charged with conspiracy (in English law) mean that the crime was never committed and was only planned? We are having trouble discerning the difference between accessory and conspiracy in the (fictional) case of a man who had planned lots of crimes but had sent his (now deceased) sons to do the dirty work. Lady BlahDeBlah (talk) 21:05, 28 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]

From Accessory (legal_term)#Conspiracy: In some jurisdictions, a person generally cannot be charged as an accessory to a crime unless the crime has actually taken place, although there are exceptions. In some situations, a charge of conspiracy can be made even if the primary offense is never committed, so long as the plan has been made, and at least one overt act towards the crime has been committed by at least one of the conspirators. Thus, an accessory before the fact will often, but not always, also be considered a conspirator. A conspirator must have been a party to the planning the crime, rather than merely becoming aware of the plan to commit it and then helping in some way.--droptone (talk) 23:11, 28 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]

Getting to know new people online[edit]

If I get to know new people online, am I in the Zeitgeist or do I lack basic social skills? 217.168.3.246 (talk) 23:29, 28 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]

Perhaps you're an ethereal spirit. Xn4 00:44, 29 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]
I would suspect if you meet them at all (And carry on a conversation) you can't completely lack basic social skills. At least I was always given to understand that they included communication. 68.39.174.238 (talk) 01:09, 29 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]
Well, I reformulate: if I get to know new people online, am I in the Zeitgeist or a loser?217.168.0.177 (talk) 01:16, 29 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]
The two need not be incompatible. Random Nonsense (talk) 01:40, 29 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]
This is all a bit negative, 217! Meeting people online is more than Robinson Crusoe could do. Take this to its extreme, and you'll get to Pliny the Elder's famous dictum, optimum non nasci (not to be born is best). Xn4 01:45, 29 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]
Thanks you all for the answers, but they are not conclusive. Should I go on and meet people online and don't be afraid that my social competence can get atrophied with time? Is it silly to have moral secondthought about it? Is it a kind of perversion or completely normal?217.168.1.39 (talk) 03:12, 29 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]
As long as you don't neglect your 'real' social commitments you should be able to balance the 2 (real & virtual) quite nicely. Its not silly to have moral secondthought... we're all human, we have doubts and paranoias. I think the key is balance.Boomshanka (talk) 03:59, 29 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]
You are asking this of people who answer questions from strangers online? And you will trust the answers? It's normal if we are.... SaundersW (talk) 20:19, 29 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]
Well, casual use of the internet don't qualify you as socially awkward. Being online also doesn't mean that you don't know how meeting people online is evalutated in any society.217.168.3.246 (talk) 01:11, 30 November 2007 (UTC)[reply]