Wikipedia:Reference desk/Archives/Humanities/2016 March 26

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March 26[edit]

Why does the Roman Catholic Church not allow Mass on Good Friday?[edit]

Why does the Roman Catholic Church not allow Mass on Good Friday? I read the Good Friday article; it was not helpful for my purposes. Thanks. Joseph A. Spadaro (talk) 06:45, 26 March 2016 (UTC)[reply]

Mass (Catholic Church) says: By long tradition and liturgical law, Mass is not celebrated at any time on Good Friday (but Holy Communion is distributed, with hosts consecrated at the evening Mass of the Lord's Supper on Holy Thursday, to those participating in the Celebration of the Passion of the Lord) or on Holy Saturday before the Easter Vigil (the beginning of the celebration of Easter Sunday), in other words, between the annual celebrations of the Lord's Supper and the Resurrection of Jesus (see Easter Triduum).
Do you need a reference for that liturgical law? -- Jack of Oz [pleasantries] 07:26, 26 March 2016 (UTC)[reply]
My question was "why"? In other words, what's the reason/rationale? Thanks. Joseph A. Spadaro (talk) 07:58, 26 March 2016 (UTC)[reply]
I won't attempt to summarise or paraphrase them, lest I misinterpret, but some specific answers (which may or may not make sense to you) can be found at [1][2][3][4]. Mitch Ames (talk) 08:16, 26 March 2016 (UTC)[reply]
Thanks. Yes, I did a Google search. Came upon the same sites that you linked. They really didn't make much sense to me. Sounded like a lot of gobbledygook. Joseph A. Spadaro (talk) 08:46, 26 March 2016 (UTC)[reply]
I agree with that, but the gist of it seems to be in the quote from Thomas Aquinas in the second link; "...this sacrament [the Mass] is a figure and a representation of our Lord's Passion, as stated above. And therefore on the day on which our Lord's Passion is recalled as it was really accomplished, this sacrament is not consecrated." In other words, on the day when the Passion itself is re-enacted in the liturgy, there is no need for a liturgical re-enactment of a memorial to the Passion. Alansplodge (talk) 10:14, 26 March 2016 (UTC)[reply]
That sort of makes a little sense. It's like mental gymnastics. I will have to think it through and digest it. Thanks. Joseph A. Spadaro (talk) 14:51, 26 March 2016 (UTC)[reply]
  • See the Catholic Encyclopedia which says

    The omission of the Mass proper marks in the mind of the Church the deep sorrow with which she keeps the anniversary of the Sacrifice of Calvary. Good Friday is a feast of grief. A black fast, black vestments, a denuded altar, the slow and solemn chanting of the sufferings of Christ, prayers for all those for whom He died, the unveiling and reverencing of the Crucifix, these take the place of the usual festal liturgy; while the lights in the chapel of repose and the Mass of the Presanctified is followed by the recital of vespers, and the removal of the linen cloth from the altar ("Vespers are recited without chant and the altar is denuded").

    μηδείς (talk) 19:26, 26 March 2016 (UTC)[reply]

Thanks, all. Joseph A. Spadaro (talk) 03:22, 29 March 2016 (UTC)[reply]

How do British gentlemen's clubs get away with discrimination?[edit]

There are many gentlemen's clubs (of the traditional kind, not those with the girls dancing) in the UK that are "men only." Some won't only bar female members, but won't even allow female visitors. Does this behavior collide with British anti-discrimination laws? Did they have a special provision due to the traditional nature of these establishments? --Scicurious (talk) 17:27, 26 March 2016 (UTC)[reply]

AFAIK, that used to be the case, but is no longer the case. The Equality Act 2010 now makes it illegal to discriminate (including excluding admission/membership) on grounds of disability, gender reassignment, pregnancy and maternity, race – this includes ethnic or national origins, colour and nationality, religion or belief – this includes lack of belief, sex, and sexual orientation. There are very limited exceptions - a club for deaf women could exclude hearing men, for instance. Further info. --Tagishsimon (talk) 18:06, 26 March 2016 (UTC)[reply]
See this from the CAB. Basically, if the group/club/association is created to only cater to one group (deaf people, lesbians, the over 65's, men) it can bar people who are not part of that group as long as it doesn't breach any other part of the act or related acts that it is not exempt from (by banning due to race for instance). Schedule 16 of the Equality Act 2010 is the relevant part "An association does not contravene section 101(1) by restricting membership to persons who share a protected characteristic." Defined protected characteristics are Age, Disability, Gender assignment/reassignment, Marriage/Civil partnership, Race, Religion/belief, Sex and finally Sexual orientation. Religions are excepted from certain sections of the law. Under the exceptions, it is also not discriminatory for the Women's Institute to exclude men from holding membership. Nanonic (talk) 18:09, 26 March 2016 (UTC)[reply]
I believe the traditional comparison is with women-only swimming, which is also allowed under this clause. -- zzuuzz (talk) 18:20, 26 March 2016 (UTC)[reply]
Not just swimming - there seems to be quite a lot of sports that men are excluded from. Mitch Ames (talk) 02:59, 27 March 2016 (UTC)[reply]
I'm all for gender equality and I think my record proves that. The reason why I think Gentlemen Clubs still exist, is that Gentile Women find no desire to encroach into a club were members are more intent on discussing what Clive of India should or should not have done etc.. yet if a club has activities that they can relate to (i.e., golf), then sure, they ought to be included as one of the old boys. My only objection to that is, they exhibit this very unfair famine ability to hit the ball straight onto the green, despite a fierce cross wind against their favour . Men don't rely on the Greek Goddess Νίκη to help them out in theses situations. Very unfair and simply not not cricket. And the way they wave their four-irons at me is also very ungentlemanly. A mild difference in view point should only warrant pistols at dawn. Not a bloody duel with handbags flying everywhere on the ninth tee! That’s sacrilege. We (some of us ) are still English and hope to remain civilized. And what is about the ninth tee that gets women so fraught? Is this something to do with the Greek goddess Gaia? How does nine come into this? Gosh, I don't know what they teach them in these expensive fee paying schools these days. But I bet they don't have on their curriculum cricket. . Jolly hockey sticks is no substitute. --Aspro (talk) 19:11, 26 March 2016 (UTC)[reply]
You won't find many Gentile women in a synagogue, either.  :) -- Jack of Oz [pleasantries] 22:33, 26 March 2016 (UTC) [reply]
You mean the temple isn't full of goys and burls ? StuRat (talk) 22:55, 26 March 2016 (UTC) [reply]
It's the same liberty which allows the Girl Guides to exclude boys. Alansplodge (talk) 01:05, 28 March 2016 (UTC)[reply]

Survey type[edit]

Is there a single term to describe a questionnaire type that includes the following information: education levels, marital status, gender, profession?--Catlemur (talk) 17:57, 26 March 2016 (UTC)[reply]

I would consider those demographic questions (see [5], [6], and demographic analysis). clpo13(talk) 17:59, 26 March 2016 (UTC)[reply]
And they would usually be called demographic variables, or sometimes socio-demographics, but I don't think there's a name for a type of questionnaire which includes them. -- zzuuzz (talk) 18:46, 26 March 2016 (UTC)[reply]
Thanks, the term sort of slipped out of my mind.--Catlemur (talk) 18:58, 26 March 2016 (UTC)[reply]
A census typically includes demographic questions. Mitch Ames (talk) 03:05, 27 March 2016 (UTC)[reply]

Flat issue[edit]

A person possess a disability and is unable to work. If the following is not considered a legal advice, than, what are the possibility for him/her getting a flat in a quite area in UK under governments help without having to possess a disability badge? -- Apostle (talk) 20:04, 26 March 2016 (UTC)[reply]

See Disability in the United Kingdom, Disability Living Allowance, and Housing Benefit. The range of accommodation available will depend (a) on where the person wants to live, and (b) on the nature of their disability - it's not a question that can be answered in general terms, but. yes, there is a statutory duty on local authorities to provide suitable accommodation. See also Disabled parking permit for disability badges - they're much easier to obtain than accommodation, so if the person isn't entitled to a badge, it's very unlikely they'll be entitled to a flat. Tevildo (talk) 20:17, 26 March 2016 (UTC)[reply]
US translation: "flat" = "apartment". StuRat (talk) 20:18, 26 March 2016 (UTC)[reply]
The origin of the word "flat" may be of interest:[7]Baseball Bugs What's up, Doc? carrots→ 20:23, 26 March 2016 (UTC)[reply]

I wonder if UK English still calls it a flat if it's more than one story. StuRat (talk) 20:29, 26 March 2016 (UTC)[reply]
Well, they did in the late 1960s, which is how Americans came to know the term:[8]Baseball Bugs What's up, Doc? carrots→ 20:32, 26 March 2016 (UTC)[reply]
That's a block of flats: we've no evidence that any of the constituent flats comprised more than one storey. —Tamfang (talk) 06:57, 27 March 2016 (UTC)[reply]

They are often called "maisonettes". --PalaceGuard008 (Talk) 16:11, 1 April 2016 (UTC)[reply]
Tower block has various names, including "block of flats". -- Jack of Oz [pleasantries] 22:30, 26 March 2016 (UTC)[reply]
Colloquially, a "flat" is any unit of accommodation smaller than a building. However, more formally, a residential unit extending across stories is a maisonette. Tevildo (talk) 22:34, 26 March 2016 (UTC)[reply]
"Flat" is occasionally used in the US, but exclusively for a single story apartment, I believe. More commonly we would just refer to it as an apartment, unless someone asked us what type of apartment it was. This is the same as how we would say "I'm going to my car", versus "sedan". StuRat (talk) 22:51, 26 March 2016 (UTC)[reply]
In Lorien, they are called flets. μηδείς (talk) 00:07, 27 March 2016 (UTC)[reply]
On British warships, a living space on the lower decks was called a "flat", where sailors would sleep, prepare meals and eat. [9] Obsolete since the 1950s when bunks replaced hammocks and food began to be served in central canteens. Alansplodge (talk) 01:01, 27 March 2016 (UTC)[reply]
In San Francisco when I lived there, a flat was a residential unit occupying all of (and only) one level of a building, not counting stairs. —Tamfang (talk) 06:57, 27 March 2016 (UTC)[reply]

The OP asked about UK regulations, US terminology is entirely irrelevant to the discussion. Fgf10 (talk) 01:25, 27 March 2016 (UTC)[reply]

It's not impossible that a non-Brit might have read this and wondered what the term "flat" means. According to EO, the word "flat" originally referred to the stories or "levels" of a building. ←Baseball Bugs What's up, Doc? carrots→ 01:29, 27 March 2016 (UTC)[reply]
Why are they called apartments when they are close together? Widneymanor (talk) 12:10, 27 March 2016 (UTC)[reply]
Why do we drive on a parkway and park on a driveway? OK, they are called "apartments" because they are set "apart" from each other in terms of wall placement.[10] That's in contrast to a regular house where the rooms have more open access. ←Baseball Bugs What's up, Doc? carrots→ 12:15, 27 March 2016 (UTC)[reply]
When a building is finished, shouldn't it be called a built? Widneymanor (talk) 16:45, 27 March 2016 (UTC)[reply]
Apparently "build" was once an alternative noun to "building", but it fell out of use except in reference to the human form.[11]Baseball Bugs What's up, Doc? carrots→ 17:31, 27 March 2016 (UTC)[reply]

Is there any possible way whatsoever one-self can get an accommodation place/residential unit, pay off the government thereafter, if possible? -- Apostle (talk) 19:06, 27 March 2016 (UTC)[reply]